Concept Application and Fact for Prelims Day-45

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This is the Day-45 questions of the CAF Revision plan for prelims. The questions are based on the syllabus as provided in the schedule. Aspirants are requested to go through the detailed CAF strategy to understand the need of the UPSC prelims and to prepare well for the same. Attempt the questions honestly. The link to key answers and explanations of this test is at the end of the questions. The maximum time to attempt the 17 questions is 25 minutes.


Q.1) Consider the following statements about martial law.

  1. It affects not only fundamental rights but also centre-state relations.
  2. It suspends the government and ordinary law courts.
  3. It has specific provision in the Constitution, it is explicitly mentioned under Article 33.

Identify the incorrect statements and choose the correct option from the codes given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3


Q.2) Which of the following have bearing on the environment?

  1. Fundamental rights
  2. Directive principles
  3. Fundamental duties

Choose the correct option from the codes given below.

(a) 3 only

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 1 and 2


Q.3) Consider the following statements.

  1. Under the Westminster Model of government executive is responsible to legislature for its policies and acts.
  2. Under Fixed Executive system of the government the executive is not responsible to the legislature for its policies and acts.
  3. The President and his Secretaries are not responsible to the Congress for their acts under Presidential form of government.

Identify the correct statements and choose the right option from the codes given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 2

(d) 1, 2 and 3


Q.4) Consider the following statements.

  1. The laws of the parliament are applicable to the Indian citizens and their property in any part of the world.
  2. The laws made by a state legislature are not applicable outside the state in any case.

Choose the correct option from the codes given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2


Q.5) Which of the following subjects falls under the concurrent list in seventh schedule of the constitution?

  1. Education
  2. Forests
  3. Agricultural
  4. Banking
  5. Administration of justice

Choose the correct option from the codes given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 4

(b) 1, 3 and 5

(c) 3, 4 and 5

(d) 1, 2 and 5


Q.6) Consider the following statements.

  1. The laws made during National emergency become in operative on the expiration of six months after the emergency has ceased to operate.
  2. The law made by the parliament during president’s rule not coterminous with the duration of president’s rule.

Identify the incorrect statements and choose the right option from the codes given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2


Q.7) Which of the following is/are the defining features of the parliamentary form of Government in India?

  1. Watertight separation of powers between executive, legislature and judiciary.
  2. Executive being responsible to the legislature.
  3. Division of powers between centre and state.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 2 and 3 only


Q.8) Why Indian federalism is termed asymmetric federalism?

(a) Some states are given special status and privilege.

(b) Indian Constitution has numerous unitary or non-federal features.

(c) The Union enjoys unbridled power and authority.

(d) Some states do not have legislative councils.


Q.9) With reference to the Presidential system of Government, which of the following statements are true?

  1. Governments in a presidential system are more stable than in a Parliamentary system.
  2. A presidential system ensures better accountability of the Government as compared to a Parliamentary System.
  3. In a presidential system, the separation of powers is loose as compared to Parliamentary system.
  4. Decision making in a presidential system is swift and it is easy to bring reforms.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) 1 and 4 only

(b) 1, 3 and 4 only

(c) 1, 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4


Q.10) Which among the following was/were the reasons behind making Directive Principles non-justiciable and legally non-enforceable by the makers of the Constitution?

  1. Lack of financial resources in the country to implement them.
  2. Implementation challenge due to vast diversity and backwardness in the country.
  3. Making them justiciable would widely increase the power of courts and judiciary.
  4. The newly independent India should be free to decide, the order, the time, the place and the mode of fulfilling them.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(c) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 4


Q.11) Which among the following are the feature(s) of the Parliamentary form of Government in India?

  1. Majority party rule.
  2. Division of power between centre and state.
  3. Dissolution of the lower house.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

a) 2 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3


Q.12) Which of the following are correct about Indian Secularism?

  1. The Indian State is not ruled by a religious group and nor does it support any one religion.
  2. Indian secularism, the State can intervene in religious affairs.
  3. The Indian Constitution guarantees Fundamental Rights that are based on secular principles.

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) All the above

(d) 1 and 3 only


Q.13) India is the member of which of the following?

(a) The Paris Call for Trust and Security in Cyberspace

(b) Budapest convention on cybercrime

(c) Both (a) and (b)

(d) None


Q.14) Which of the following is/are Border Guarding Forces?

  1. Assam Rifles
  2. Border Security Force
  3. Indo-Tibetan Border Police Force
  4. National Security Guard

Choose the correct answers from the codes given below

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 2, 3, and 4 only

(c) 1, 2 and 4 only

(d) All the above


Q.15) People’s Biodiversity Registers (PBRs) often in news is

(a) Records of a region’s biological resources— plants, animals and the traditional knowledge of the locals.

(b) Records of a regions human genetic diversity and that of domestic animals

(c) A register which maintain genetic variation of human species

(d) None


Q.16) ‘Land Degradation Neutrality’ by 2030 is launched by

(a) UN Framework Convention on Climate Change

(b) UN Convention to Combat Desertification

(c) UN Convention on Biological diversity

(d) UN Environment Program


Q.17) UNCCD’s Land Degradation Neutrality (LDN) by 2030 has which of the following consequences?

  1. Prevention of Desertification
  2. Reduction in Water scarcity
  3. Reduction in Migration insecurity
  4. Reduced Income inequalities

Choose the correct answers from the codes given below

(a) 1 and 3

(b) 2 and 4

(c) 1 and 2

(d) All the above


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