Concept Application and Fact for Prelims Day-47

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This is the Day-47 questions of the CAF Revision plan for prelims. The questions are based on the syllabus as provided in the schedule. Aspirants are requested to go through the detailed CAF strategy to understand the need of the UPSC prelims and to prepare well for the same. Attempt the questions honestly. The link to key answers and explanations of this test is at the end of the questions. The maximum time to attempt the 20 questions is 25 minutes.


Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding Finance Commission.

  1. The body enjoys the constitutional mandate, as well as it is quasi – judicial in nature.
  2. The qualification of members of the commission is determined by the Parliament.
  3. The commission submits its report to the Parliament.

Select the correct statement(s) using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3


Q.2) Consider the following statements regarding to provisions of tribunals in the Constitution of India.

  1. Art 323 A deals with Tribunals for public service matters only.
  2. Tribunals under Articles 323 B can be established by Parliament only.
  3. The Central Administrative Tribunals different benches are hierarchal in nature.

Select the correct statement(s) using the codes given blow:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 3 only


Q.3) The Government enacted the Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act in 1996. Which one of the following is not identified as its objective?

(a) To provide self-governance

(b) To recognize traditional rights

(c) To create autonomous regions in tribal areas

(d) To free tribal people from exploitation


Q.4) With reference to National Legal Services Authority, consider the following statements:

  1. Its objective is to provide free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of the society on the basis of equal opportunity.
  2. It issues guidelines for the State Legal Services Authorities to implement the legal programs and schemes throughout the country.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

  • 1 only
  • 2 only
  • Both 1 and 2
  • Neither 1 nor 2

Q.5) Under the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, who shall be the authority to initiate the process for determining the nature and extent of individual or community forest rights or both?

(a) State Forest Department

(b) District Collector/Deputy Commissioner

(c) Tahsildar /Block Development Officer / Mandai Revenue Officer

(d) Gram Sabha


Q.6) The power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court of India is vested in

(a) the President of India

(b) the Parliament

(c) the Chief Justice of India

(d) The Law Commission


Q.7) The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India can be removed from office only by :

(a) President on the advice of the Union Cabinet.

(b) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court.

(c) President of India after an address in both Houses of Parliament.

(d) President on the advice of Chief Justice of India.


Q.8) The National Human Rights Commission has:

  1. a Chairperson who has been a Chief Justice of Supreme Court or a High Court of India
  2. one Member who is or has been a Judge of Supreme Court
  3. one Member who is, or has been the Chief Justice of a High Court
  4. two Members to be appointed from amongst persons having knowledge of or practical experience in matters relating to human rights

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 4 only

(d) 2, 3 and 4 only


Q.9) With reference to the ‘Gram Nyayalaya Act’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. As per the Act, Gram Nyayalayas can hear only civil cases and not criminal cases.

2. The Act allows local social activists as mediators/reconciliators.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2


Q.10) In India, Judicial Review implies

(a) the power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws and executive orders.

(b) the power of the Judiciary to question the wisdom of the laws enacted by the Legislatures.

(c) the power of the Judiciary to review all the legislative enactments before they are assented to by the President.

(d) the power of the Judiciary to review its own judgements given earlier in similar or different cases.


Q.11) For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filed by

(a) anyone residing in India.

(b) a resident of the constituency from which the election is to be contested.

(c) any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a constituency.

(d) any citizen of India.


Q.12) Consider the following statements:

  1. In the election for Lok Sabha or State Assembly, the winning candidate must get at least 50 percent of the votes polled, to be declared elected.
  2. According to the provisions laid down in the Constitution of India, in Lok Sabha, the Speaker’s post goes to the majority party and the Deputy Speaker’s to the Opposition.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2


Q.13) Consider the following statements:

  1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.
  2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and by-elections.
  3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognized political parties.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 3 only


Q.14) In an election the voters make many choices. Which among the following are those choice?

  1. They choose who will make laws for them.
  2. ­They choose who will form the government and take major decisions.
  3. ­They choose the party whose policies will guide the government and law making.

Choose the correct answers from the codes given below

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) All the above


Q.15) First recipient of the Bharat Ratna Award; founder of the Swatantra Party, member of Constituent Assembly; Whom the above line describes?

(a) K.M.Munshi

(b) C. Rajagopalachari

(c) A. K. Gopalan

(d) Sardar Valla Bhai Patel


Q.16) Which of the following is/are not Girmitiya countries?

  1. Fiji
  2. Mauritius
  3. South Africa
  4. Maldives

Choose the correct answers from the codes given below

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 2

(d) 4 only


Q.17) Which of the following country is not the member of Comprehensive And Progressive Trans-Pacific Partnership (CPTPP)?

  1. Australia
  2. Brunei
  3. Chile
  4. Japan
  5. Indonesia

Choose the correct answers from the codes given below

(a) 1, 2 and 5 only

(b) 1, 3, 5 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 5 only


Q.18) Asia Reassurance Initiative Act (ARIA) is an act of which of the following country?

(a) Japan

(b) China

(c) USA

(d) European Union


Q.19) GAFA (Google Apple Facebook Amazon) Tax often in news associated with which of the following country?

(a) Russia

(b) France

(c) Sweden

(d) European Union


Q.20) Jan Shikshan Sansthans (JSSs) are established for

(a) skill development

(b) to increase literacy rate among the adults, old age and school drop outs.

(c) to increase awareness about RTE Act.

(d) to provide education to the tribal people affected by developmental projects.


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